Bobby Richardson
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In Genesis Chapter 14, Abram greatly revered, and even gave a tithe (1/10 part) to, Melchizedek (BEFORE the Mosaic Law on Mount Sinai). In Genesis Chapter 17, the LORD God appeared to Abram and promised him that he and his wife would have a son together, although he thought it impossible (because of their age). Also, in the same Chapter (Genesis Chapter 17), Abram's name was changed to Abraham , and Sarai's name was changed to Sarah. Then, about a year later, in the following Chapter (Genesis Chapter 18), the LORD God appeared to Abraham again . And, the Bible says "three men stood by him" and Abraham ran out to meet them, and "bowed himself toward the ground". They had a meal. And, one of the "men" reiterated the promise regarding the "son of promise". This time, Sarah thought it impossible (because of her age). Any how, the story goes on to say that the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah were going to be destroyed because of their sins. Now, some most people (if they know anything at all about this) claim that one of these three men was the Father, one was the Son, and the other one was the Holy Ghost. However, unless one denies the Deity of our Lord Jesus Christ, and believes Jesus existed prior to Bethlehem as an "angel" (as Jehovah's Witnesses do), that couldn't be the case because in Genesis Chapter 19, the Bible specifically says that two "angels" arrived at Sodom, and went in and lodged with Lot the night before the city was utterly destroyed.
This will be one of the longest foundations I have laid before an explanation. But, I felt it necessary to establish some things instead of just saying, ... in a nutshell, Hebrews 5:7 explains John Chapter 17. In Hebrews 5:7 our Lord Jesus Christ is being likened to Melchisedec, and says He prayed "in the days of His flesh.”
Most church members "claim" to believe that Jesus was God in the form of man ... or the "God-man" ... whereas those of us who embrace the Apostles One God Doctrine (true Monotheism) really do believe it, as documented and supported by the preponderance of Scriptural evidence. Be all of that as it may, many try to use John Chapter 17 as a "got cha". When, if fact, it should NOT come as a surprise that Jesus prayed. He was BOTH God AND man. He came to be BOTH our Lord and Saviour, to redeem us ... AND to set an example for us to follow. Actually, Jesus' praying presents a much greater problem for those who have been indoctrinated to believe the Doctrine [theory] which originated at Rome instead of embracing the Apostles One God Doctrine (true Monotheism), which began at Jerusalem *(more about this later with a link at the bottom of this page), when the New Testament Church was born, about 7 days after the Ascension of our Lord Jesus Christ. I say this because John Chapter 17 would portray one "co-equal, co-eternal, co-existent persons" of the Doctrine [theory of] Rome praying to another "co-equal, co-eternal, co-existent person". But, as much they would like to, they don't have the liberty of re-defining the Doctrine of Rome. It has been very well documented down through the centuries ... beginning in 325 AD, following the Council of Nicaea. At any rate, those who believe it, believe something which is diametrically opposed to their own theory. That's why they have to try and pass it off as a "mystery" which cannot be understood. Well, I researched "mystery" AND "mysteries" through the whole Bible. And, that explanation does NOT hold water at all.
Those who have ears to hear understand Jesus HAD to pray because He was BOTH God AND man. And, it would have been impossible for Him to have participated in our human experience COMPLETELY, had He not condescended, took upon Himself the form of man ... a servant, at that (SUBMISSIVE) ... who subjected Himself to everything we humans go through ... including the need to PRAY. Any how, those indoctrinated to believe the Doctrine [theory] of Rome, focus their attention upon a handful of cherry picked" Scriptures instead of the preponderance of Scriptural evidence written VERBATIM upon the pages of the King James Version of God's Holy Word. And, they give the cherry picked Scriptures "implied" AND/OR "literal" meanings, because that is the ONLY way they can support their theory.
John Chapter 17 is used literally, while ignoring the preponderance of ONE GOD found throughout the entire Bible, by those who wrestle with the Scriptures, in order to find what little bit of support they can find to support the "theory". AND, they do so by twisting, misrepresenting or misinterpreting the preponderance of the Scriptures ... including Deuteronomy 6:4 "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:"
With all of this in mind, John Chapter 17 is presented by most church members ... including those who deny the absolute Deity of Jesus Christ ... as if our Lord took center stage and eloquently uttered these words for all to hear in order to teach His followers that there are at least two "persons" in the Godhead ... One being the Father (the Creator) and the other one being Himself ... the Son ... a lesser (subordinate) person. Then, virtually all of them will turn right around in an effort to prop up their "theory" of the existence of three "co-equal, co-eternal, co-existent persons" of God ... even though that actually defies their own belief. Why would one "co-equal, co-eternal, co-existent person" find it necessary to pray to another "co-equal, co-eternal, co-existent person"??? OR, how could one "co-equal, co-eternal, co-existent person" BEGET another "co-equal, co-eternal, co-existent person", for that matter??? At any rate, when comparing the other Scriptural evidence regarding John Chapter 17, it will be found that Jesus had gone some distance away from His disciples to pray ... ALONE. And, I doubt very seriously that any one was behind a rock listening to His prayer. Be that as it may, unlike what we call the "Lord's Prayer" in Matthew Chapter 6 and Luke Chapter 11 ... where He taught us "how" to pray, but didn't pray, Himself ..., this is where our Lord actually prayed. And, it is my understanding that this is where our Lord died (metaphorically speaking) BEFORE the soldiers nailed Him to the torturous "Roman" (pagan) cross ... an emblem of suffering and shame, but precious to those of us whose sins have been covered by the blood that was shed on that cross. Any how, Gethsemane was the last stop in God's strange mission to Earth before He allowed Himself to be handed over to those who would brutally beat Him before causing the life (of flesh) to cease ... but NOT the Spirit that dwelt in that sinless body ... AND HE KNEW ALL OF THIS IN ADVANCE. His hour had come. The purpose of His coming into the world was upon Him. And, as a man, I do not believe our Lord wanted to suffer and die, in the manner He knew He was about to, anymore than any of us would want to. For those who can receive this: Gethsemane is where the Lamb of God ... the Arm of God ... the Son of God ... prayed. Humanity praying to Divinity. Our Lord was BOTH human and Divine ... flesh AND Spirit. And, His humanity remained under subjection to Divinity just as had been the case for the previous 33 years or so. He WILLINGLY laid down His human life ... the tabernacle of flesh ... and He took it back up again just as He said He was going to do in John 10:17-18. By the way, John 1:14 says "... the Word was made flesh and dwelt among us ...". And, many church members insist that, in the Beginning, the Word was only "with" God, as per John 1:1. However, a closer look at John 1:1 reveals that the Word "was" God, in the Beginning. Also, many church members try to separate the Lord God from the Incarnate Christ by implying that the Father remained in Heaven, and was only "with" Jesus while He was on Earth, AND that Jesus was not "in" Heaven while He walked upon this Earth. But, that is NOT the case either. John 4:24 "God is a Spirit: ..." Luke 24:39, "... a spirit hath not flesh and bones ..." 1 Thimothy 1:17 "Now unto the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only wise God, be honour and glory for ever and ever. Amen." 2 Corinthians 5:19, "To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation." Last but not least, John 3:13 says this, "And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven." Jesus was in Heaven while, at the same time, he was talking to Nicodemus on earth. However, most are trying to understand the spiritual things of God while following the creeds, doctrines and traditions of man which they've been indoctrinated to believe, and/or as a result of using their own human reasoning and logic, regardless of what the preponderance of Scriptural evidence is regarding the Apostles One God Doctrine (true Monotheism).
Only when we understand who Jesus "really" is do we really know the Father (John 8:19). The religious, though hypocritical, Jews "claimed" they served the LORD God of the Old Testament (and this was before the New Testament was ever written). But, because of their rejection of our Lord Jesus Christ, He told them that they would die in their sins (John 8:24). Therefore, believing in the existence of the LORD God as man's Creator and the Lawgiver, will NOT save anyone under the New Covenant. It takes the shed blood of our Lord Jesus Christ ... who was God manifest in the flesh. You see, He had to have a body of flesh in order to shed blood. However, when He came forth from the grave, I don't know of anyone who would argue that it was blood circulating through His veins that He was alive forever more. Any how, we MUST understand who our Lord Jesus Christ "really" is in order to truly obey Him, AND be saved.
Any how, the purpose AND content of this prayer (in John Chapter 17) was so important that God saw to it that is became part of the recorded Word even though He went ALONE to pray. So, this (and the stuff above) needs to be kept in mind when studying the 17th Chapter of the Book of John (which was after Judas went out to forsake Him). Immediately after which, He had a very intimate talk with His disciples, that started in John Chapter 13, Verse 31. And, although John didn't make any changes or distinctions in the surroundings or the settings between John 13:31 and John Chapter 17, I believe a comparison with Matthew Chapter 26, Mark Chapter 14 and Luke Chapter 22 will support the position that our Lord was in a solitary place ... ALONE ... when He uttered the words of the prayer of John Chapter 17. All of this said, I will copy and paste John Chapter 17, and make a few comments. Notice Jesus begins this prayer by referring to himself as "he" and "him" before referring to himself in the first person {"I", "me", "my"}
John 17:1-5 These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee: As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him. And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent. I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do. And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
NOTES: In the Beginning the Word WAS God. He was in the world and the world was made by Him. And, the Word was made flesh ... with "glory" that was beheld John 1:1; 1:10 & 1:14. Jesus manifested His glory to His Disciples in John 2:11 and Luke 9:32. And, Jesus said Isaiah saw His Glory in John 12:41 [see where it happened in Isaiah 6:1]. In the regeneration our Lord will sit in the throne of His glory Matthew 19:28. Matthew 25:31 says, "When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:". Luke 24:26 says the Incarnate Christ had to "suffer" to enter into His glory. 1 Peter 4:13 says that those who are partakers of the sufferings of our Lord will be glad with exceeding joy when His glory shall be revealed. Hebrews 1:1-8 puts it this way: "God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds; Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high; Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they. For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son? And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him. And of the angels he saith, Who maketh his angels spirits, and his ministers a flame of fire. But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom." ... **IF** the Son is a separate and distinct person from the LORD God of the Old Testament, as most church members insist, the LORD God referred to the Son as "O God". However, those of us who understand who Jesus "really" is, and understand that the LORD GOD is "Holy" AND "a Spirit" and that the Incarnate Christ was "God manifested in flesh" [1 Timothy 3:16] understand that we're NOT dealing with two separate and distinct "persons". Also, the "Thy throne, O God ..." of Hebrews 1:8 was first recorded in Psalm 45:6.
John 17:6-8 I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word. Now they have known that all things whatsoever thou hast given me are of thee. For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me.
NOTES: Our Lord "manifested" (REVEALED ... MADE KNOWN) the name of the LORD God of the Old Testament. The name of the LORD God of the Old Testament was introduced as what is known as the Tetragrammaton ... or "YHWH" ... It cannot be pronounced. Vowels had to be added to it to make the name Yahweh in Hebrew or Jehovah in English. And, the name "Jesus" was dispatched by an angel to BOTH Joseph and Mary separately as the name to name the Christ Child. It was NOT a name which they just chose, and agreed upon. At any rate, the name "Jesus", itself, literally means "Jehovah/Saviour" or "Jehovah is become salvation". He did miracles like no one had ever done up to that time ... or since that time... and He spoke in parables so that only those who had ears to hear would understand. And, when He issued the GREAT COMMISSION (the GREAT COMMANDMENT) in Matthew 28:19, here's how He worded it ... Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: But, those who had ears to hear went forth and baptized in the precious name of Jesus in Acts 2:38-41; Acts 8:14-17; Acts 10:44-48 and Acts 19:1-8. NOBODY in the entire Bible was EVER baptized with the WORDS "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost" invoked over them in baptism. So, what is the name of the Father, the name of the Son and the name of the Holy Ghost? Those who have ears to hear, understood that the name was none other than our Lord JESUS Christ.
John 17:9-11 I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine. And all mine are thine, and thine are mine; and I am glorified in them. And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are.
NOTES: 1 John 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. [notice it does NOT say, "and these three PERSONS are one" ... OR "and these three are AS one."]. When our Lord unequivocally stated in John 10:30, "I and my Father are One", the Jews understand precisely what He meant, and responded with this ... Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. (John 10:33)
John 17:12-17 While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled. And now come I to thee; and these things I speak in the world, that they might have my joy fulfilled in themselves. I have given them thy word; and the world hath hated them, because they are not of the world, even as I am not of the world. I pray not that thou shouldest take them out of the world, but that thou shouldest keep them from the evil. They are not of the world, even as I am not of the world. Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth.
NOTES: Jesus' disciples were men and women (mortals) just like all of us, today. They had earthly fathers and mothers, so they weren't exactly like Jesus in not being of this world. Yet, Jesus said "They are not of the world, even as I am not of the world." Therefore, it had to be because they followed our Lord Jesus Christ, and their "agape" love, as per John 14:21; James 4:4; and 1 John 2:15.
John 17:18-26 As thou hast sent me into the world, even so have I also sent them into the world. And for their sakes I sanctify myself, that they also might be sanctified through the truth. Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word; That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one: I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me. Father, I will that they also, whom thou hast given me, be with me where I am; that they may behold my glory, which thou hast given me: for thou lovedst me before the foundation of the world. O righteous Father, the world hath not known thee: but I have known thee, and these have known that thou hast sent me. And I have declared unto them thy name, and will declare it: that the love wherewith thou hast loved me may be in them, and I in them.
NOTES: Most church members insist that Jesus pre-existed Bethlehem's manger as a "second person" in the Godhead. As a result, they use, “As thou hast sent me into the world, even so have I also sent them into the world” (John 17:18) in an effort to establish that there are at least two different "persons" in the Godhead. But, John 20:21 says, “Then said Jesus to them again, Peace be unto you: as my Father hath sent me, even so send I you” (John 20:21). Soooo, to follow their logic regarding the theory that our Lord Jesus Christ pre-existed Bethlehem's manger as a second "person" of the Godhead, would mean that His disciples would have had to pre-existed in Heaven, in some form, in order to fulfill John 17:18 ... AND, that is just NOT the case. Again, literally interpreting metaphors ... and giving "implied" meanings to others, as many do today, is just like the religious, but hypocritical, Jews trying to understand Jesus' hard words and parables 2,000 years ago. It just doesn't work that way. And, that's a good thing. It keeps and preserves the Truth in its entirety in the written Word "camouflaged" ... for the lack of a better term ... from everyone, except for those who truly hunger and thirst for righteousness, AND to whom it is revealed by the Spirit of God through the written Word of God. Furthermore, **IF** the Father and the Son are two separate and distinct "persons", as Jesus and the disciples were separate and distinct persons, that would pose even more problems for many church members. We would then have a portrayal of the LORD God as a mysterious union of three persons as distinct from each other as three of us would be. As a result, it would be impossible for them to deny the existence in either three persons in the Godhead ... each of whom would form a 1/3 "part" or God ... OR ... that the three persons in the Godhead would each be completely God ... IN THAT CASE ... three Gods (upper case "G"). And, both of these positions would be abominable. Yet, those who embrace the Doctrine of Rome often accuse those of us who embrace the Apostles One God Doctrine as being the heretics ... or the abominable. At any rate, Jesus' reference to being sent and sending forth is because of the work to be done ... the mission ... the commission ... the authority ... the anointing, etc. He AND His disciples ... even to this day ... go “into the world” to promote the Truth in its entirety. Along this same line of thought, Jesus said in John 6:38, “I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.” Again, many church members jump on this as if it's another "got cha". They have been indoctrinated to believe that Jesus must have been speaking of Himself as a preexistent second "person" in the Godhead. However, looking back a few verses, to John 6:31, the Jews made mention of how God supplied manna to their forefathers in the wilderness: to which Jesus explained in the next two verses (John 6:32-33) that the "true bread from heaven" is this ... “The bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world” (John 6:32-33). And, if that weren't enough, in John 6:51 and John 6:58 He stated plainly ..., “I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world. This is that bread which came down from heaven: not as your fathers did eat manna, and are dead: he that eateth of this bread shall live for ever.”
Sooo, I said that to say this ... the mention of God supplying manna “from heaven,” does NOT mean the manna pre-existed in some form in Heaven. Instead, it means that the manna came from God ... NOT as a result of some earthly phenomenon. Likewise, Jesus' referral to Himself as being the true bread that came down from heaven as that of His flesh, that was going to be offered up as a sacrifice, did NOT mean He pre-existed in Heaven as a human being of flesh and blood ... OR some convoluted, mysterious, Second Person in the Godhead. As we've already covered, our Lord Jesus Christ was born of the virgin Mary as a human. Therefore, when He said He came down from heaven, He did NOT mean that He lived in heaven as a distinct human person, who was eventually sent ... and came down ... to earth in His pre-existent form ... that of the Second "person" in the Godhead. What many church members just can't get is that He meant that the LORD God begot the Incarnate Christ (the tabernacle of flesh) ... the Spirit begot the flesh. AND, that He was the source from which the Incarnation came into this world ... keeping in mind that He came NOT as a result of the "seed" of man ... but by the "seed" of the woman ... a virgin, at that. Also, some use Hebrews 1:6 to assert that God brought "the first begotten into the world" sort of like we would bring someone into our house ... who is separate and distinct from our own person. At any rate, the fact that the Son came "into the world" does NOT mean that He pre-existed Bethlehem's manger as the Son in Heaven, any more than His disciples did before they "went into the world" in John 17:18.
I can't imagine any serious Bible student denying the fact that 1 Timothy 3:16 is plainly speaking that Jesus was God manifested in the flesh. As a result of His pre-existence in Heaven as the LORD God, our Lord Jesus Christ could accurately say things like, “I came down from heaven”. And, as a result of Him making references and distinctions between the flesh ... the Incarnation ... and the LORD God ... the Eternal Father ... which dwelt in that sinless body, those who have been indoctrinated to believe the Doctrine of Rome have no other choice but to literally interpret the metaphors which our Lord used from time to time as being their human reasoning and logic that there are at least two "persons" in the Godhead. I can say this, I've never run across anyone who unequivocally stated they came to believe the theory of Rome by independent Bible study. It is my position that it MUST be taught because there is absolutely no specific proof in the Bible to support such a belief. Therefore, it must be taught to an individual. I'm not knocking most folks being whatever they are, religiously speaking, because of their raising or indoctrination. Being raised to believe something or being indoctrinated to believe something is not inherently wrong or bad. As a matter of fact, that's the way it's supposed to be. However, the problems come in when traditions, theories, commentaries, creeds, doctrines of man, etc. are elevated to the same level ... or supersede ... the written Word of God. That's the real tragedy. |